Liquid Reigns
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- Oct 31, 2023
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I've been diving into some historical legal texts, and I came across an interesting argument by Thomas Jefferson. He suggests that the idea of Christianity (New Testament) being part of the common law is actually a misconception that arose from a misinterpretation of an old legal case.
Apparently, a statement made by a judge in the 15th century was later twisted by legal writers to mean that the Christian principles are embedded in the common law. This idea was then repeated by several legal authorities over the years, but Jefferson argues that there's no solid historical or legal foundation for it. He points out that the common law existed long before Christianity was even introduced to England.
This got me thinking— Is there a real basis for the claim that Christianity is part of the common law, or is it simply a product of legal folklore?
Apparently, a statement made by a judge in the 15th century was later twisted by legal writers to mean that the Christian principles are embedded in the common law. This idea was then repeated by several legal authorities over the years, but Jefferson argues that there's no solid historical or legal foundation for it. He points out that the common law existed long before Christianity was even introduced to England.
Christianity was not introduced till the seventh century; the conversion of the first Christian King of the Heptarchy, having taken place about the year 598, and that of the last about 686. Here, then, was a space of two hundred years, during which the common law was in existence, and Christianity no part of it.
https://oll.libertyfund.org/titles/jefferson-the-works-vol-1-autobiography-anas-1760-1770
This got me thinking— Is there a real basis for the claim that Christianity is part of the common law, or is it simply a product of legal folklore?